Markup /q/1178

Comment
>>1158
Coming back to the point you made about matthew 5:27 where you say the greek word used could mean either a woman or a wife. I am from Serbia and we have the same lingual peculiarity, that's to say the word "жена" means woman but can also mean wife, however these 2 NEVER get confused, that's because when someone is just called "жена" it always means woman, only with added context would it mean a wife, example: нечија (someone's) жена; његова (his) жена. So this argument seems to be completely born out of ignorance and cope. And to even think that such a basic error could permeate the most highly regarded holy book for 2 thousand years is absurd.
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Furthermore, if we were to even consider the argument that lusting is only bad when done towards married women (that's to say only adultery was bad) then you could reasonably conclude that fornication is moral as well, seeing as neither parties are married. Obviously ridiculous. Not only that, but you're also taking out the factor in which this "entertainment" of yours was created, mainly prostitution and exploitation.
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The only people that would interpret the given verse in such a flawed and ill fitting manner are those coping and reaching for straws